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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

10.06.2025 01:27

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

My scammer is blackmailing me. If I don't pay 300 euros, he will send my intimate photos to my relatives. What should I do?

You'll usually find your answer there.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Why do flat earthers delete their answers after being proven wrong? Are they just being ignorant and arrogant?

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

There's no rule.

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Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.